BrokerExam

Practice

General and industry practice

25 of the exam's 100 graded questions come from this section. 37 free questions here, 166 more in the paid bank.

All 37 free general and industry questions

  1. Under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act, what must a person hold before acting as an insurance broker in Ontario?

    • A A licence issued by the Financial Services Regulatory Authority of Ontario (FSRA).
    • B Registration as an insurance broker under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act. Correct
    • C Employment with a registered brokerage, working under the principal broker's registration.
    • D Written authority from an insurer allowing the person to bind coverage.

    Section 2 of the Registered Insurance Brokers Act bars any person from acting as an insurance broker unless that person is personally registered under the Act, so working at a registered firm or belonging to an industry association does not stand in for the individual's own registration.

    RIB Act, s. 2(1)

  2. Who may use the designation R.I.B. (Ont.)?

    • A Any person licensed as an insurance agent under the Insurance Act.
    • B Only the holder of a certificate as a registered insurance broker under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act. Correct
    • C Any employee of a registered brokerage who has passed an accredited insurance course.
    • D Any holder of the Chartered Insurance Professional designation from the Insurance Institute of Canada.

    Subsection 3(2) of the Registered Insurance Brokers Act requires the user of the title registered insurance broker or the designations R.I.B. (Ont.) and C.A.I. (Ont.) to be the holder of a certificate under the Act, because the restriction attaches to the certificate, completing a course or holding another licence carries no right to use them.

    RIB Act, s. 3(2)

  3. A brokerage wants a larger operating line of credit. Its bank agrees, on condition that the brokerage pledge its premium receivables, the money owed by clients for policies placed with insurers, as security for the loan. The principal broker asks whether the brokerage can sign. What is the answer under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act?

    • A No, unless the Manager approves the pledge in writing before the loan is advanced.
    • B Yes, provided the amount pledged never exceeds the balance held in the brokerage's trust account.
    • C No. Those funds are deemed trust funds, and a member cannot assign, pledge or in any way charge them. Correct
    • D Yes, provided each affected insurer gives the brokerage written consent to the pledge.

    Section 32 of the Registered Insurance Brokers Act deems funds a member receives or has receivable on behalf of insurers or the public to be trust funds and prohibits a member from assigning, pledging, hypothecating, mortgaging or otherwise charging them, so the security the bank wants cannot be given.

    RIB Act, s. 32(1), (2)

  4. While checking a renewal a broker notices that the insurer has applied a rating credit the client does not qualify for, which has lowered the premium. Which principle of the code of conduct in Regulation 991 speaks most directly to how the broker treats the insurer here?

    • A A member shall hold in strict confidence all information acquired in the course of the professional relationship.
    • B A member owes a duty to the client to be competent to perform the services the member undertakes on the client's behalf.
    • C A member shall discharge the member's duties to clients, members of the public, fellow members and insurers with integrity. Correct
    • D A member shall make the member's services available to the public in an efficient and convenient manner.

    The first principle of the code of conduct in section 14 of Regulation 991 requires integrity toward insurers as well as toward clients, members of the public and fellow members, so the broker cannot quietly accept a credit the client has not earned.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 14, para. 1

  5. Which minimum amounts must a brokerage maintain under section 20 of Regulation 991? Select all that apply.

    • A Fidelity insurance of at least $500,000 in respect of any one occurrence.
    • B Errors and omissions insurance of at least $1,000,000 in respect of any one occurrence.
    • C Fidelity insurance against losses arising from dishonesty of employees, a proprietor or partners, directors, officers and shareholders of at least $100,000 in respect of any one occurrence. Correct
    • D Errors and omissions (E&O) insurance with extended coverage for loss resulting from fraudulent acts, or another approved financial guarantee, of at least $3,000,000 in respect of any one occurrence. Correct

    Section 20 of Regulation 991 sets two separate minimums, because subsection (1) calls for at least $3,000,000 per occurrence of errors and omissions cover or another approved financial guarantee, and subsection (2) calls for at least $100,000 per occurrence of fidelity insurance.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 20(1)

  6. A brokerage hires an unlicensed trainee. The principal broker will be away for two weeks and asks a Level 1 licensee in the office to act as supervising broker for the trainee's work while she is gone. What does By-Law No. 3 say about that plan?

    • A A Level 1 licensee may act as supervising broker for up to 30 days during a principal broker's absence.
    • B A Level 1 licensee may supervise anyone who is not registered, but not another licensee.
    • C A Level 1 licensee cannot act as principal broker, deputy principal broker or supervising broker. Correct
    • D A Level 1 licensee may act as supervising broker after completing 24 months of registration.

    Section 3.3 of By-Law No. 3 has a Level 1 licensee act under the supervision of a principal broker and while employed or sponsored by an active firm, and it bars that licensee from the principal broker, deputy principal broker and supervising broker roles, so the plan cannot go ahead.

    By-Law No. 3, s. 3.3(a), (b)

  7. Under the Insurance Act, where is the list of unfair or deceptive acts and practices actually set out?

    • A In Part XVIII of the Insurance Act, which names each prohibited act in its own subsections.
    • B In the Authority rules, because the Act defines the term by what those rules prescribe. Correct
    • C In Regulation 7/00, which is still the operative list of prohibited practices in Ontario.
    • D In the by-laws of the Registered Insurance Brokers of Ontario (RIBO), for everyone RIBO registers.

    Section 438 defines an unfair or deceptive act or practice as any activity or failure to act that the Authority rules prescribe, so the Act supplies the definition and the rule made by the Financial Services Regulatory Authority of Ontario (FSRA) supplies the list of conduct itself.

    Insurance Act, s. 438

  8. The prohibition on unfair or deceptive acts and practices in the Insurance Act applies only to licensed insurers, so a brokerage or an automobile repair shop falls outside it. Is that statement true or false?

    • A True
    • B False Correct

    Section 439 states that no person shall engage in any unfair or deceptive act or practice, and the Part's definition of person is wide, so a brokerage, an adjuster and a repair shop are all inside the prohibition alongside insurers.

    Insurance Act, s. 439

  9. For the purposes of the unfair or deceptive acts and practices Part of the Insurance Act, which of the following are included in the definition of a person? Select all that apply.

    • A A partnership Correct
    • B A parcel of land held for commercial use
    • C A corporation Correct
    • D A syndicate Correct
    • E A motor vehicle registered in Ontario

    Section 438 defines person to take in individuals, corporations, associations, partnerships, organizations, reciprocals, Lloyd's members, fraternal and mutual benefit societies and syndicates, which is why the prohibition reaches business structures and not only individuals.

    Insurance Act, s. 438

  10. Under FSRA Rule 2020-001, misleading advice given to a client only in conversation, with nothing put in writing, falls outside the misrepresentation provision. Is that statement true or false?

    • A True
    • B False Correct

    Section 8(1) applies to information, promotional materials or advice in any form, and it lists audio, visual, electronic, written and oral means, so spoken advice is inside the provision on the same terms as a printed brochure.

    FSRA Rule 2020-001, s. 8(1)

  11. A broker is renewing a client's automobile policy with an insurer that belongs to a group of three affiliated companies. The renewal offer from the incumbent company is $2,240. A sister company in the same group would write the same risk at $1,890 through the same brokerage. What does FSRA Rule 2020-001 require the broker to do?

    • A Present the incumbent renewal, because the client chose that company at inception.
    • B Present the incumbent renewal, because the affiliate duty applies to new business only.
    • C Survey every insurer the brokerage represents and present the cheapest overall.
    • D Offer the lowest rate available among that insurer and its affiliated insurers. Correct

    Section 10(1) makes it an unfair or deceptive act or practice for a broker providing a quote or renewal from an insurer not to offer the lowest rate available among that insurer and its affiliated insurers, and the subsection names renewals as well as quotes.

    FSRA Rule 2020-001, s. 10(1)

  12. Under the code of conduct in Regulation 991, how is a broker's duty of competence framed?

    • A The broker must hold the highest registration level available for the class of business.
    • B The broker must be competent to perform the services the broker undertakes on the client's behalf. Correct
    • C The broker must complete the continuing education hours set for the year before taking new business.
    • D The broker must obtain the principal broker's approval before accepting an unfamiliar risk.

    Paragraph 2 of the code owes competence to the client and measures it against the services the broker undertakes, so accepting work the broker is not competent to perform breaches the code at the moment of acceptance rather than when something goes wrong.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 14, para. 2

  13. In February a broker realises that the client's business interruption limit was set on a figure two years out of date and is now well short of what a full shutdown would cost. She decides to raise it at the August renewal. In March the client asks her whether the policy still fits the business and she says it does, without mentioning the limit. What does the code of conduct say about waiting?

    • A Waiting is acceptable, because coverage changes are ordinarily made at renewal.
    • B Waiting is acceptable, because the broker did not cause the figure to fall out of date.
    • C Waiting breaches the duty to be candid as well as honest when advising the client. Correct
    • D Waiting is acceptable if the broker documents the reasoning on the client file.

    Paragraph 4 of the code requires a member to be both candid and honest when advising a client, so an assurance that the policy still fits, given while the broker knows the limit is short, withholds the one fact the client needed even though nothing false was said.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 14, para. 4

  14. A broker who declines to answer questions in an investigation by the Registered Insurance Brokers of Ontario (RIBO) commits a separate breach of the code of conduct, quite apart from whatever is being investigated. Is that statement true or false?

    • A True Correct
    • B False

    Paragraph 14 of the code requires a member to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the Corporation, so refusing to answer or sitting on documents is misconduct in its own right, and section 25(4) of the Registered Insurance Brokers Act separately prohibits obstructing an investigator or concealing records.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 14, para. 14

  15. A broker gives the Registered Insurance Brokers of Ontario (RIBO) an inaccurate answer during a routine file review about a matter that turns out to be trivial. Under Regulation 991, what follows?

    • A Nothing, because the underlying matter did not itself amount to misconduct.
    • B Nothing, provided the broker corrects the answer before the file review closes.
    • C The answer is treated as misconduct only where it was given under oath or by a sworn affirmation.
    • D Providing false or misleading information to the Corporation is misconduct in its own right. Correct

    Paragraph 14 of section 15(1) makes providing false or misleading information to the Corporation misconduct on its own, so the answer is judged separately from whatever it was about and a minor underlying matter does not excuse it.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 15(1), para. 14

  16. Under Regulation 991, what must a sole proprietorship, partnership or corporation do in order to hold a certificate of registration as an insurance broker?

    • A Designate an individual who is an insurance broker to be the principal broker of the business. Correct
    • B Appoint a director who has completed a recognized risk management designation or equivalent diploma.
    • C Nominate one employee to hold the certificate of registration on the firm's behalf.
    • D Retain an external compliance consultant to review its client files each year.

    Section 7.2(1) requires a firm that holds or wishes to hold a certificate of registration to designate an individual who is an insurance broker as its principal broker, so a firm cannot be registered without one in place.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 7.2(1)

  17. Under By-Law No. 3, what form must a principal broker's supervision arrangements take?

    • A An understood practice consistently followed by everyone in the office.
    • B Procedures and a written Plan of Supervision that are established and followed. Correct
    • C A quarterly file review signed by each supervised licensee.
    • D An annual attestation filed with the firm's errors and omissions (E&O) insurer.

    Section 6.1(d)(viii) makes it part of the principal broker's direction and supervision duties that procedures and a written Plan of Supervision are established and followed to ensure compliance, so a well-run but unwritten practice does not satisfy the by-law.

    By-Law No. 3, s. 6.1(d)(viii)

  18. A principal broker appoints a deputy principal broker and prescribes to her in writing the whole of the firm's trust account oversight. A year later the trust reconciliations are found to be a shambles. The principal broker says the duty was handed over in writing and is no longer his. What does By-Law No. 3 provide?

    • A Responsibility moved to the deputy, because the delegation was made in writing as the by-law requires.
    • B The principal broker continues to be responsible for compliance despite the appointment and delegation. Correct
    • C Responsibility is shared equally, because the by-law makes delegated duties joint.
    • D Responsibility moved to the deputy, provided the Registered Insurance Brokers of Ontario (RIBO) was told of the appointment.

    Section 6.1(i) states that despite any appointment and delegation of duties, a principal broker continues to be subject to and remains responsible for compliance with the responsibilities in the applicable laws, so delegation adds a person rather than moving the accountability.

    By-Law No. 3, s. 6.1(i)

  19. By-Law No. 3 sets the classes of firm registration. What are they?

    • A Level 1, Level 2 and Level 3 firm licensee
    • B Sole proprietorship, partnership and corporation licensee
    • C Brokerage, managing general agency and consultant firm licensee
    • D Active firm licensee, non-active firm licensee and consultant firm licensee Correct

    Section 4.1 provides that there shall be three classes of firm registration, namely active firm licensee, non-active firm licensee and consultant firm licensee, so the levels used for individuals are a separate scheme.

    By-Law No. 3, s. 4.1

  20. Under Regulation 991, what must appear on every cheque drawn on a brokerage trust account?

    • A The words trust account and the name of the member the account is kept in, imprinted on the cheque. Correct
    • B The signature of the principal broker and the brokerage's certificate of registration number in full.
    • C The name of the insurer the payment relates to and the number of the policy.
    • D A notation of the client's name written on the cheque at the time it is issued.

    Section 16(9) requires all cheques drawn on a trust account to have the words trust account and the name of the member in whose name the account is kept imprinted on them, so the marking is printed on the stock rather than added by hand.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 16(9)

  21. Under Regulation 991, what mailing address must a broker who carries on business, or who is employed by a member carrying on business, register for the purposes of the Registered Insurance Brokers Act?

    • A Any address in Ontario at which the broker can reliably receive registered mail.
    • B The broker's home address, so that service can be effected personally.
    • C A post office box maintained in the name of the brokerage.
    • D The address where the business is carried on, and it may not be a post office box number. Correct

    Section 24(1) requires the mailing address maintained for the purposes of section 28 of the Act to be the address where the business is carried on and not a post office box number, which is what makes service by registered mail effective under sections 28 and 29 of the Act.

    O. Reg. 991, s. 24(1)

  22. Under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act, how does an individual member resign, and what is the effect?

    • A By filing a written resignation with the Manager, whereupon the registration is cancelled. Correct
    • B By letting the registration lapse at the next annual renewal date.
    • C By giving the Qualification and Registration Committee three months written notice.
    • D By filing a written resignation with the Manager, which takes effect at the end of the registration year.

    Section 5(2) lets an individual member resign by filing a resignation in writing with the Manager, and the word thereupon means the registration is cancelled as soon as that filing is made rather than at any later date.

    RIB Act, s. 5(2)

  23. The Registered Insurance Brokers Act requires Council to establish certain committees. Which of the following does the Act require? Select all that apply.

    • A One or more Complaints Committees Correct
    • B A Discipline Committee Correct
    • C An Audit Committee
    • D An Appeals Committee
    • E A Qualification and Registration Committee Correct

    Section 12(1) requires Council to establish a Qualification and Registration Committee, one or more Complaints Committees and a Discipline Committee, and allows but does not require Council to establish other committees it considers necessary.

    RIB Act, s. 12(1)

  24. An Ontario resident who owns a car asks a broker for automobile insurance. The broker expects every insurer she deals with to decline the risk. Under the Compulsory Automobile Insurance Act, what must the broker do?

    • A Explain that no market is available and decline to take the enquiry further.
    • B Provide the person with an application for automobile insurance and submit the completed application to an insurer. Correct
    • C Refer the person directly to the Financial Services Regulatory Authority of Ontario (FSRA) for assistance.
    • D Take the application but hold it until an insurer confirms it will consider the risk.

    Section 5 obliges an agent, when requested by an Ontario resident owner or lessee, to provide an application for automobile insurance and to submit a completed application to an insurer, so a broker may not screen a driver out by refusing to hand over the form.

    Compulsory Automobile Insurance Act, s. 5

  25. Under the Compulsory Automobile Insurance Act, what obligation does membership in the Facility Association place on an insurer?

    • A To accept a fixed share of the Plan's business in each year regardless of its own underwriting capacity to write it.
    • B To maintain a separate reserve fund approved by the Chief Executive Officer for Plan business.
    • C To comply with the Plan and the articles of association, by-laws, rules and resolutions of the Association. Correct
    • D To appoint one of its own officers to the Association's board of directors.

    Section 7(3.1) requires every member of the Association to comply with the Plan and with the articles of association, by-laws, rules and resolutions of the Association, which is what makes the Plan workable across the whole market.

    Compulsory Automobile Insurance Act, s. 7(3.1)

  26. Under the Insurance Act, on what basis may an automobile insurer decline to issue, terminate or refuse to renew a contract, or refuse to provide a coverage or endorsement?

    • A Only on a ground filed with the Chief Executive Officer under the Act. Correct
    • B On any ground set out in the insurer's own published underwriting manual.
    • C On any ground the insurer applies consistently across its book of business.
    • D Only on a ground approved in advance by the Facility Association.

    Section 238(1) bars an insurer from declining to issue, terminating or refusing to renew a contract, or refusing to provide or continue a coverage or endorsement, except on a ground filed with the Chief Executive Officer, which is the statutory basis of the take all comers obligation.

    Insurance Act, s. 238(1)

  27. Where does part of the money in the Motor Vehicle Accident Claims Fund come from?

    • A A share of every automobile premium collected in Ontario, remitted to the Fund by the brokers who collect it.
    • B General tax revenue voted to the Fund by the Legislature each year.
    • C A prescribed fee paid to the Fund by every person on the issue or renewal of a driver's licence. Correct
    • D Fines collected for offences committed under the Compulsory Automobile Insurance Act.

    Section 2(2) requires a fee prescribed by the Lieutenant Governor in Council to be paid to the Fund by the person to whom a driver's licence or renewal is issued, and section 2(1.2) also records amounts assessed against insurers, so drivers help fund it directly.

    Motor Vehicle Accident Claims Act, s. 2(2)

  28. Two defendants are found at fault for the same loss, one at 80 per cent and one at 20 per cent. Under the Negligence Act, what may the injured person recover from the defendant found 20 per cent at fault?

    • A The whole of the damages, because the defendants are jointly and severally liable to the person suffering the loss. Correct
    • B Twenty per cent of the damages, matching that defendant's share of the fault.
    • C Nothing, until the injured person has exhausted recovery against the defendant found 80 per cent at fault.
    • D Half of the damages, because liability is divided equally between defendants at trial.

    Section 1 makes two or more persons found at fault jointly and severally liable to the person suffering the loss, and confines the split by degree of fault to contribution and indemnity between the wrongdoers themselves, which is why a liability policy can be asked for the whole judgment on a small share of fault.

    Negligence Act, s. 1

  29. Under the Occupiers' Liability Act, who is an occupier of premises?

    • A The registered owner of the land, and no one else, since responsibility for premises follows title on the parcel register.
    • B The person who carries on the principal business conducted at the premises, whether or not that person has any responsibility for the condition of the building or control over who may enter.
    • C Whoever is named as the insured on the property policy covering the premises, together with anyone added to that policy by endorsement as an additional insured.
    • D The person in physical possession, or a person with responsibility for and control over the condition of the premises, the activities there, or who may enter, and there may be more than one. Correct

    Section 1 defines occupier to include a person in physical possession and a person with responsibility for and control over the condition of the premises, the activities carried on there, or the persons allowed to enter, and says so despite there being more than one occupier of the same premises.

    Occupiers' Liability Act, s. 1

  30. What standard does the Occupiers' Liability Act set for an occupier's duty to people entering the premises?

    • A To keep the premises safe for anyone who enters, whatever care that would take in the circumstances.
    • B To meet the standard of care the common law owed to an invitee, which the Act expressly preserves for anyone who is lawfully on the premises.
    • C To warn entrants of every hazard the occupier knows about, whether or not the hazard is obvious to them.
    • D To take such care as in all the circumstances is reasonable to see that persons entering, and the property they bring, are reasonably safe. Correct

    Section 3(1) sets the duty as taking such care as in all the circumstances of the case is reasonable to see that persons entering, and the property they bring, are reasonably safe while on the premises, and section 2 replaces the old common law categories of visitor.

    Occupiers' Liability Act, s. 3(1)

  31. Under the Occupiers' Liability Act, what notice must be given before an action may be brought for personal injury caused by snow or ice?

    • A Written notice of the claim, including the date, time and location, served personally or sent by registered mail within 60 days of the injury. Correct
    • B Written notice of the claim, including the date and location, served personally within 10 days of the injury.
    • C Written notice of the claim, including the date, time and location of the occurrence, sent by ordinary mail within 6 months of the injury.
    • D No notice, provided the action is started within the ordinary limitation period for a personal injury claim.

    Section 6.1(1) bars the action unless, within 60 days after the injury, written notice of the claim including the date, time and location of the occurrence has been personally served on or sent by registered mail to at least one of the persons listed in section 6.1(2).

    Occupiers' Liability Act, s. 6.1(1)

  32. Under the Dog Owners' Liability Act, what damages is a dog owner liable for?

    • A Damages resulting from a bite or attack by the dog on another person or domestic animal. Correct
    • B Damages resulting from a bite on a person only, since animals are property.
    • C Damages resulting from any injury the dog causes, including damage to fences and gardens.
    • D Damages resulting from a bite where the owner knew the dog had bitten before.

    Section 2(1) makes the owner of a dog liable for damages resulting from a bite or attack by the dog on another person or domestic animal, so harm to another animal is inside the section as much as injury to a person.

    Dog Owners' Liability Act, s. 2(1)

  33. A dog with two owners bites a neighbour. Under the Dog Owners' Liability Act, how does liability fall between them?

    • A They are jointly and severally liable. Correct
    • B Only the owner recorded on the municipal licence is liable.
    • C Only the owner who was in control of the dog at the time is liable.
    • D Each is liable for half of the damages to the injured person.

    Section 2(2) provides that where there is more than one owner of a dog they are jointly and severally liable under the section, so the injured neighbour may look to either of them for the whole of the damages.

    Dog Owners' Liability Act, s. 2(2)

  34. Under the Highway Traffic Act, when is the owner of a motor vehicle not liable for loss caused by negligence in its operation on a highway?

    • A Where the owner was not present in the vehicle at the time of the collision on the highway.
    • B Where the vehicle was in the possession of someone other than the owner or the owner's chauffeur without the owner's consent. Correct
    • C Where the driver was convicted of an offence under the Highway Traffic Act arising out of the same collision on the highway.
    • D Where the driver held a valid licence and the owner had no reason to doubt their ability to drive safely.

    Section 192(2) makes the owner liable for loss caused by negligence in the operation of the vehicle on a highway unless the vehicle was, without the owner's consent, in the possession of a person other than the owner or the owner's chauffeur, so consent to possession is the hinge and it is not the same as consent to how the vehicle was driven.

    Highway Traffic Act, s. 192(2)

  35. A tractor trailer is owned by a leasing company and leased to a haulage firm, whose employee drives it. The trailer runs under the operating authority of a separate carrier, which dispatches the load. The load shifts because of poor securement and injures a motorist. Under the Highway Traffic Act, whose liability does the Act add on top of the owner's and the lessee's?

    • A The operator of the commercial motor vehicle. Correct
    • B The consignor who packed the load.
    • C The repair facility that last inspected the trailer.
    • D The insurer that issued the fleet policy.

    Section 192(5) provides that in addition to any liability of an owner or lessee, the operator of a commercial motor vehicle is liable for loss caused by negligence in its operation on a highway, and section 192(6) then makes driver, owner, lessee and operator jointly and severally liable.

    Highway Traffic Act, s. 192(5)

  36. Under the Insurance Act, when is insurable interest tested for a contract insuring a life, and what happens if it is absent?

    • A At the time of the loss, and the contract is voidable at the insurer's option.
    • B At the time the claim is made, and the contract is void from that date forward.
    • C At the time the first premium is paid, and the contract is voidable at the insured's option.
    • D At the time the contract would otherwise take effect, and the contract is void. Correct

    Section 178(1) provides that where at the time a contract would otherwise take effect the insured has no insurable interest, the contract is void, which is a stronger result than voidable because there is nothing for the insurer to elect.

    Insurance Act, s. 178(1)

  37. Where the person whose life is to be insured is under the age of sixteen, who may give the written consent the Insurance Act contemplates?

    • A The child, provided the application is countersigned by the insurer's licensed agent.
    • B No one, because the life of a person under sixteen may not be insured.
    • C Both parents together, or a guardian appointed by a court order.
    • D One of the child's parents, or a person standing in the role of parent to the child. Correct

    Section 178(3) lets consent to insurance on the life of a person under sixteen be given by one of that person's parents or by someone standing in the role of parent, so the signature the Act looks for is the parent's rather than the child's.

    Insurance Act, s. 178(3)